Thanks for your question Jerry!
Yes, a trademark does grant a legal presumption of the registrant's ownership of the mark and the registrant's exclusive right to use the mark nationwide on or in connection with the goods and/or services listed in the registration.
However, it sounds as if Common-Law rights are going to be at play here. So, even if the manufacturer does not have a trademark, they are still going to have Common-Law rights to the name.
Here's what the USPTO has to say: "Where the mark is used by a related company, the owner is the party who controls the nature and quality of the goods sold or services rendered under the mark. The owner is the only proper party to apply for registration."
Hope that helps Jerry!
Any other questions out there? Please email me at shannon at tmexpress dot com.
Read more about trademarks here